Please refer to the Assignment 5 Document.

1 Problem Set 1

Choose independently two numbers B and C at random from the interval [0,1] with uniform density. Prove that B and C are proper probability distributions. Note that the point (B,C) is then chosen at random in the unit square.

Find the probability that,

(a.) \(B+C < \frac{1}{2}\)

(b.) \(BC < \frac{1}{2}\)

(c.) \(\left | B-C \right | < \frac{1}{2}\)

(d.) \(max \left \{ B,C \right \} < \frac{1}{2}\)

(e.) \(min \left \{ B,C \right \} < \frac{1}{2}\)

1.1 General Ideas

Def2.1 Density Functions of Continuous Random Variables from our Introduction to Probability textbook

Def2.1 Density Functions of Continuous Random Variables from our Introduction to Probability textbook

1.2 Proof

By the Def2.1, let \(X\) be a continuous real-valued random variable. The density function for \(X\) is a real-valued function \(f\) which satifies \[P(a\leq X\leq b) = \int_{a}^{b}f(x)dx \; \; \; \; \; \; \;\forall a,b\in \mathbb{R}\]

The general formula for the probability density function of the uniform distribution is known as \[f(x)=\frac{1}{b-a} \;\;\; for \;a\leq x\leq b\]

By substituting \(a=0\) and \(b=1\) into the above formula, we get

\[P(0\leq X\leq 1) = \int_{0}^{1}f(x)dx = \int_{0}^{1}\frac{1}{1-0}dx = \int_{0}^{1}1\; dx = 1-0=1\] Therefore, the total probability of this density function equals to 1 and it satifies the definition of probability.

The cumulative distribution function of \(X\) by definition is \(F_{X}(x)=P(X \leq x)\). Based on the above distribution formula, we have \[F_{X}(x) = P(X \leq x) = \int_{-\infty }^{x}f(x)dx = \int_{-\infty }^{x}1 \; dx = \left\{\begin{matrix}0, \;\;\;\;\;\;\;\;\; if\;\;\;x \leq 0\\ x, \;\;\; if\;\;0 \leq x \leq 1\\ 1, \;\;\;\;\;\;\;\;\; if \;\;\; x \leq 1\end{matrix}\right.\]

Since \(B\) and \(C\) are independently and randomly chosen from the interval \([0,1]\), we have \[F_{X}(B) = P(X \leq B) =B\] \[F_{X}(C) = P(X \leq C) =C\]

As all definitions and properties were able to apply to \(B\) and \(C\) and they are the cumulative distribution function of their own, I conclude that \(B\) and \(C\) are proper probability distributions.

1.3 Solve (a)

\(P(B+C < \frac{1}{2})\)

Graph 1a

Graph 1a

Given that the point (B,C) is chosen at random in the unit square, let \(x\) be \(B\) and \(y\) be \(C\), we have

\[P(x+y<\frac{1}{2})\] \[= P(y < \frac{1}{2}-x)\] \[=\int_{0}^{1/2} \int_{0}^{1/2-x} f(x,y) \;dy\,dx\] \[=\int_{0}^{1/2} \int_{0}^{1/2-x} 1 \; dy\,dx\] \[=\int_{0}^{1/2} \frac{1}{2}-x\;dx\] \[=\left [ \frac{x}{2} - \frac{x^{2}}{2} \right ]^{\frac{1}{2}}_{0}\] \[=\frac{1}{4}-\frac{1}{4}\cdot\frac{1}{2}\] \[=\frac{1}{8}\]

We can also easily solve the question by looking at the graph, the probability = shaded area in green \[= \frac{(0.5)^{2}}{2}\] \[=\frac{1}{8}\]

Verifying the result using the codes below:

## 0.125 with absolute error < 1.4e-15

1.4 Solve (b)

\(P(BC < \frac{1}{2})\)

Graph 1b

Graph 1b

Given that the point (B,C) is chosen at random in the unit square, let \(x\) be \(B\) and \(y\) be \(C\), we have

\[P(y < \frac{1}{2x})\]

\[= 1 - P(y > \frac{1}{2x})\]

\[= 1 - \int_{1/2}^{1} \int_{1/(2x)}^{1} 1 \;dy\,dx \]

\[=1 - \int_{1/2}^{1} 1-\frac{1}{2x} \;dx \]

\[=1 - (1-\frac{1}{2}) + \frac{1}{2}\cdot \left [ ln(x) \right ]^{1}_{1/2} \] \[=\frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{2} \cdot (ln(1)-ln(\frac{1}{2})) \] \[=\frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{2} \cdot (ln(1)-ln(1)+ln(2)) \] \[=\frac{1}{2} + \frac{ln(2)}{2}\] \[\approx 0.84657359\]

Verifying the result using the codes below:

## [1] 0.8465736

1.5 Solve (c)

\(\left | B-C \right | < \frac{1}{2}\)

Graph 1c

Graph 1c

Given that the point (B,C) is chosen at random in the unit square, let \(x\) be \(B\) and \(y\) be \(C\), we have

\[P(-\frac{1}{2} \leq x-y \leq \frac{1}{2})\]

\[= P(\,y<x+\frac{1}{2} \;\;\; \cap \;\;\; y>x-\frac{1}{2}) \;\;, for \;\;x,y\in \mathbb{[0,1]}\] \[=\int_{0}^{1/2} \int_{0}^{x+1/2} 1 \;dy\,dx + \int_{1/2}^{1} \int_{x-1/2}^{1} 1 \;dy\,dx\] \[= \int_{0}^{1/2} x+\frac{1}{2} \;dx + \int_{1/2}^{1} 1-x+\frac{1}{2} \;dx\] \[= \left [ \frac{x^{2}}{2}+\frac{x}{2} \right ]^{1/2}_{0} + \left [ \frac{3x}{2} - \frac{x^{2}}{2} \right ]^{1}_{1/2}\] \[= \frac{1}{8}+\frac{1}{4}+\frac{3}{2}-\frac{1}{2}-\frac{3}{4}+\frac{1}{8}\] \[= \frac{3}{4}\]

We can also easily solve the question by looking at the graph, the probability = shaded area in green \[=1 \cdot 1 - \frac{(\frac{1}{2})^{2}}{2} \cdot 2\] \[= 1 - \frac{1}{4}\] \[= \frac{3}{4}\]

Verifying the result using the codes below:

## [1] 0.75

1.6 Solve (d)

\[max \left \{ B,C \right \} < \frac{1}{2}\]

Graph 1d

Graph 1d

Given that the point (B,C) is chosen at random in the unit square, let \(x\) be \(B\) and \(y\) be \(C\), we have

\[P(x<\frac{1}{2} \;\; \cap \;\; y<\frac{1}{2})\] \[\int_{0}^{1/2}\int_{0}^{1/2} 1 \;dy\,dx\]

\[=(\frac{1}{2})^{2}\] \[=\frac{1}{4}\]

Verifying the result using the codes below:

## 0.25 with absolute error < 2.8e-15

1.7 Solve (e)

\[min \left \{ B,C \right \} < \frac{1}{2}\]

Graph 1e

Graph 1e

Given that the point (B,C) is chosen at random in the unit square, let \(x\) be \(B\) and \(y\) be \(C\), we have

\[P(x<\frac{1}{2} \;\; \cup \;\; y<\frac{1}{2})\] \[\int_{0}^{1/2}\int_{0}^{1} 1 \;dy\,dx + \int_{1/2}^{1}\int_{0}^{1/2} 1 \;dy\,dx\]

\[=\frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{2}\cdot(1-\frac{1}{2})\] \[=\frac{1}{4}\]

We can also easily solve the question by looking at the graph, the probability = shaded area in green \[= (\frac{1}{2})^{2} \cdot 3\] \[= \frac{3}{4}\]

Verifying the result using the codes below:

## [1] 0.75