Probability Section 2.2 Exercise 13 Page 73

Take a stick of unit length and break it into two pieces, choosing the break point at random.

Now break the longer of the two pieces at a random point.

What is the probability that the three pieces can be used to form a triangle?

This is actually a rather tricky problem.

We have a stick of length 1.

We uniformly select a value x and break the stick there.

Either \(x < \frac{1}{2}\) or \(x >= \frac{1}{2}\) .

Without loss of generality, let’s assume \(x < \frac{1}{2}\).
(We will then double the result from this case to obtain the final answer.)

Since \(x < \frac{1}{2}\), it represents the length of the shorter stick, which we will not break further.

We have a longer stick of length \(1-x >= \frac{1}{2}\), which we will break into lengths \(y\) and \(z=1-x-y\) .

Thus we will have 3 sticks with lengths \(x\), \(y\), and \(z=1-x-y\) .

We know from the triangle inequality that the length of each of the above must be less than \(\frac{1}{2}\) for the sticks to make a triangle.

The result depends on how close the length of the first stick is to \(\frac{1}{2}\) .

If \(x\) is just short of \(\frac{1}{2}\) , then \((1-x)\) is just slightly bigger than \(\frac{1}{2}\), and a uniform cut along this stick makes it highly likely that both pieces will have length less than \(\frac{1}{2}\) .

On the other hand, if \(x\) is extremely short, then \((1-x)\) is much bigger than \(\frac{1}{2}\), and it is much more likely that a cut on this larger stick would yield one piece which has length more than \(\frac{1}{2}\), making it impossible to form a triangle.

In fact, the probability that the cut to the second stick would give pieces of the desired size depends upon the ratio of the lengths of the two sticks from the first cut, \(\frac{x}{1-x}\) .

(An explanation is given in: Joe Whittaker, “Random triangles”, in American Mathematical Monthly, 97(3):228-230, March 1990, available at https://www.jstor.org/stable/2324691 )

We need to solve \({\int\limits _{ 0 }^{ { 0.5 } }{ \frac { x }{ 1-x } \mathrm{d}x }}\) .

Substituting \(u = 1-x\) ; \(du = -dx\) we obtain

\[ \begin{aligned} \int\limits _{ 0 }^{ { 0.5 } }{ \frac { x }{ 1-x } \mathrm{d}x } &=\int\limits _{ u=1 }^{ _{ u={ 0.5 } } }{ \left[ \frac { 1-u }{ u } (-\mathrm{d}u) \right] } \\ &=\int\limits _{ { u={ 0.5 } } }^{ u=1 }{ \left[ \frac { 1-u }{ u } \mathrm{d}u \right] } \\ &=\int\limits _{ { u={ 0.5 } } }^{ u=1 }{ \left[ \frac { 1 }{ u } -1 \right] \mathrm{d}u } \\ &=\left[ \log u-u \right] _{ u={ 0.5 } }^{u=1} \\ &=\log 1 - 1 - \log 0.5 + 0.5 \\ &= 0 -1 + \log 2 + 0.5 \\ &= \log2 - \frac{1}{2} \end{aligned}\]

As this is the result for the case where \(x < \frac{1}{2}\), we have to double it in order to obtain the final result:

\[ 2 \log 2 - 1 \approx 0.386294 \]

The theoretical probability is 2 log 2 - 1 = 0.386294 .