A new test for multinucleoside-resistant (MNR) human immunodeficiency virus type 1 (HIV-1) variants was recently developed. The test maintains 96% sensitivity, meaning that, for those with the disease, it will correctly report “positive” for 96% of them. The test is also 98% specific, meaning that, for those without the disease, 98% will be correctly reported as “negative.” MNR HIV-1 is considered to be rare (albeit emerging), with about a .1% or .001 prevalence rate. Given the prevalence rate, sensitivity, and specificity estimates, what is the probability that an individual who is reported as positive by the new test actually has the disease? If the median cost (consider this the best point estimate) is about $100,000 per positive case total and the test itself costs $1000 per administration, what is the total first-year cost for treating 100,000 individuals?
First, we need to defined the terms and pull the important information. We denote D as having the disease.
\[ \begin{align} P(D) &= 0.001 \\ P(D^c) = 1 - P(D) &= 0.999 \\ P(Positive | D) &= 0.96 \\ P(Negative | D^c) &= 0.98 \end{align} \] The question wants to know P(D | Positive). We can use bayes theorem and the law of total probability formula to find P(Positive)
\[ \begin{align} P(Positive) &= P(Positive|D)P(D) + P(Positive|D^c)P(D^c) \\ &= 0.96(0.001) + (1-P(Negative|D^c))(0.999) \\ &= 0.96(0.001) + (0.02)(0.999) \\ &= 0.02094 \end{align} \] Now, we know the P(Positive)
\[ \begin{align} P(D | Positive) &= \frac{P(Positive | D)P(D)}{P(Positive)} \\ &= \frac{0.96(0.01)}{0.02094} \\ &= 0.04584 \approx 4.58\% \end{align} \]
We need to calculate the first year cost for treating 100k individuals,
\[ Total Individual Cost = 100,000(0.0458*100,000) = 458,000,000 \\ Admin Cost for Treatment = 1,000(100,000) = 100,000,000 \] We are using P(D|P) because they are the individuals who have the disease and have been tested positive.
So, the total first year cost of treating 100,000 individuals is $558,000,000.
The probability of your organization receiving a Joint Commission inspection in any given month is .05.
\[ P(X = 2) = \binom{24}{2}(0.05)^2(1-0.05)^{22} \]
# p 0.05 We want to find P(X = 2) with n = 24
five_C_2 <- choose(24, 2)
p_i <- 0.05^2
q_n_i <- (1 - 0.05)^22
result <- five_C_2 * p_i * q_n_i
result## [1] 0.2232381
\[ \begin{align} P(X = 2) = \binom{24}{2}(0.05)^2(1-0.05)^{22} = 0.3235 \end{align} \]
## [1] 0.3391827
\[ \begin{align} P(X \geq 2) &= 1 - P(X <2) \\ &= 1 - (P(X=0) + P(X=1)) \\ &= 0.3392 \end{align} \]
## [1] 0.6608173
\[ \begin{align} P(X<2) &= P(X=0) + P(X=1) \\ &= 0.292 + 0.369 \\ &=0.661 \end{align} \]
\[ E[X] = np = 24(0.05) = 1.2 \]
\[ Var(X) = np(1-p) = 24(0.05)(0.95) = 1.14 \] But we want the standard deviation. So
\[ \sigma = \sqrt{Var(X)} = \sqrt{1.14} = 1.0677 \]
You are modeling the family practice clinic and notice that patients arrive at a rate of 10 per hour.
\[ \lambda = 10;\\ P(X = 3)= \frac{e^{-10}10^3}{3!} = 0.008 \]
## [1] 0.007566655
\[ \begin{align} P(X>10) &= 1 - P(X \leq 10 ) \\ &= 1 - \sum_{i=0}^{10} \frac{e^{- \lambda}\lambda^i}{i!} \\ &= 1 - 0.583 \\ &= 0.417 \end{align} \]
## [1] 0.5830398
The expected value is lambda = 10 per hour. So, after 8 hours we can expect have 80 arrivals.
\[ \sigma = \sqrt{Var(X)} = \sqrt{\lambda} = \sqrt{10} \approx 3.162 \]
Our given arrival rate of 10 per hour. Then we can say that for three family clinics we can expect 80 patients arriving in 8 hours per day. But, the three clinics can only see 24*3 = 72 patients a day.
So, the utilization rate of 80/72 = 1.11 or 110% which indicates overbooking and thus may not have enough time to see all patients in their care.
Recommendations to combat this, is to either reduce their patient pool or to increase the number of clinics while all maintaining the same level of quality care.
Your subordinate with 30 supervisors was recently accused of favoring nurses. 15 of the subordinate’s workers are nurses and 15 are other than nurses. As evidence of malfeasance, the accuser stated that there were 6 company-paid trips to Disney World for which everyone was eligible. The supervisor sent 5 nurses and 1 non-nurse.
\[ P(X =5) = \frac{\binom{15}{5} \binom{15}{1}}{\binom{30}{6}} = 0.07586 \approx 7.59 \% \]
## [1] 0.07586207
15 nurses out of 30 employees for 6 trips,
\[ E[X] = \frac{15(6)}{30} = 3 \]
15 non nurses out of 30 employees for 6 trips
\[ E[X] = \frac{15(6)}{30} = 3 \]
So, we could expect to have 3 nurses and 3 non nurses on the trips.
The probability of being seriously injured in a car crash in an unspecified location is about .1% per hour. A driver is required to traverse this area for 1200 hours in the course of a year.
\[ \begin{align} P(X \geq 1) &= 1 - P(X < 1) \\ &=1 - P(X=0) \\ &= 1- 0.699 \\ &= 0.301 \end{align} \]
## [1] 0.6992876
\[ E[X] = \frac{1}{p} = \frac{1}{0.001} = 1000 \]
In other words, for every 1000 hour, there could be at least 1 driver that will be seriously injured.
You are working in a hospital that is running off of a primary generator which fails about once in 1000 hours.
Based on the question, it sounds like a poisson distribution due to an existence of rate and a time window; in this case fails 1 in 1000 hours.
So, we have \(\lambda = 1\),
\[ \begin{align} P(X \geq 2) &= 1 - P(X < 2) \\ & = 1 - \sum_{i=0} ^ 1 \frac{e^{- 0.001} 0.001^i}{i!} \\ &= 0.0803 \approx 8.03 \% \end{align} \]
## [1] 0.0803014
And the expected value of poisson is \(E[X] = \lambda = 1\)
A surgical patient arrives for surgery precisely at a given time. Based on previous analysis (or a lack of knowledge assumption), you know that the waiting time is uniformly distributed from 0 to 30 minutes.
\[ \begin{align} P(X>10) &= \int_{10}^{30} \frac{1}{30-0}dx \\ &= \frac{x}{30} \Big| _{10}^{30} \\ &= \frac{30-10}{30} = 0.6667 \end{align} \]
\[ P(X \geq 15 | X > 10) = \frac{\int_{15}^{30} \frac{1}{30-0}dx}{\int_{10}^{30} \frac{1}{30-0}dx} = \frac{3}{4} = 0.75 \]
\[ E[X] = \frac{30}{2} = 15 \]
Your hospital owns an old MRI, which has a manufacturer’s lifetime of about 10 years (expected value). Based on previous studies, we know that the failure of most MRIs obeys an exponential distribution.
We have a \(\lambda = 1/10\) given,
\[ E[X] = \frac{1}{\lambda} = \frac{1}{\frac{1}{10}} = 10 \\ \sigma = \sqrt{Var(X)} = \sqrt \frac{1}{\lambda^2} = 10 \]
We were told that X~exp(\(\lambda\)). Isnt this the hazard rate function.
\[ P(X \geq 8) = 1 - P(X<8) = 1 - \int_0 ^ 8 0.1 e^{- 0.1 (x)} dx = 1-0.0.5507 = 0.4493 \]
## [1] 0.449329
Ross, S. (2014) A first course in probability. Harlow:Pearson